Huygens problem
One of my friends is taking a probability class, and he gave me this problem to solve:
Entities
and
play game such that
takes the first turn and can win with probability 1/4.
goes second and can win with probability 1/3. What is the probability
will win before
?
I’m not sure I understand it…
Clarification Now I understand it; consider that
and
are playing a game of darts. Then
and
, the probability that
will make their next throws, do not necessarily sum to unity. And if
alternate throws, then
alternate between being zero and nonzero.
So here’s my solution:
since
for even
, this reduces to
.The first term is calculated as


The second term is calculated as
Therefore, the desired probability is
. Possibly relevant posts:
- simple signal compression (9/28/2005)
- Probabilistic Tools (8/25/2008)
- Regular Series (7/20/2007)
Another way:
Let B_1 = A wins on first try, B_2 = A misses and B wins, B_3 = they both miss
Let A = {A wins before B}. Then P(A) = sum over i=1 to 3 P(A intersection B_i).
P(A int B_1) = 1/4, P(A int B) = 0, P(A int B_3) = 1/2 P(A)
The subtle point here is that the probability(A wins before B AND they both miss) is 1/2 P(A)! That is, 1/2 is the probability they both miss in the first round and P(A) is the probability that A wins given B_3.
So we get P(A) = 1/4 + 1/2 P(A). Thus P(A) = 1/2.
Comment by Z — 9/19/2004 @ 2:34 pm
I forgot to say that the B’s are a partition of the sample space.
Comment by Z — 9/19/2004 @ 2:37 pm
this problem would be more interestingly solved using Christian Huygens methods set out in his book “Libellu De Ratiociniis in Ludo Aleae”. Based on his work let x equal A’s expectation to win when it is A’s turn and y be A’s expectation when it is B’s turn. Also let a=the prize Then according to Huygens, When it is A’s turn, A has 1 chance of a and 4 chances of y. so x equals the some of the product of these divided by the total number of chances.. x=(1a+4y)/5
now by similar argument when it is B’s turn, a has 1 chance of 0 (i.e. losing) and 3 chances for x thus y=(1*0+3x)/4 pluging this back into x=(1a+4y)/5, it is found that x=1/2a. Thus it is a fair play and both should be at even odds.
Comment by James H. — 12/10/2004 @ 3:42 am