An Inversion Theorem for Formal Power Series
I ran across a very interesting theorem concerning the inversion of formal power series. Recall that if
is a sequence of numbers, then the associated function
is called a formal power series; note that
does not need to converge for any particular value of
(other than 0)— hence the qualifier ‘formal’. Another name for a formal power series is a generating function, because it is associated with, or generates the sequence
.
Let
and
be two formal power series and suppose
. Then
.
Here’s the interesting theorem:
Let a function
be such that
and
. Then there exist functions
and
such that
and
. Each of the functions
and
is a unique function possessing this property.
The function
is said to be the left inverse of
;
is said to be the right inverse. The interesting thing about this theorem is that polynomials are formal power series, so it says that every polynomial has a right and left inverse formal power series. Also, if the polynomial is one like
whose range is
, the left inverse is a power series that converges on all of
.
My question is, since
, isn’t
so
?
Possibly relevant posts:
- A little about Gröbner bases (6/5/2005)
- The Riemann rearrangement theorem, and an interesting corollary (8/14/2006)
- The implicit and inverse function theorems (9/12/2006)
be such that
and
. Then there exist functions
and
such that
and
. Each of the functions
Working out the first few terms
[tex]A(B(t)) = a_0 + a_1 b_1 t + a_1 b_2 t^2 + a_2 b_1^2 t^2 + O(t^3)[\tex]
so it doesn’t look associative
If B(C(t))=t then A(B(C(t)))=A(t)!!
and if A(B(t))=t then C(A(B(t)))=C(t)!!
Where did you see this right-left hand stuff.
No such thing, in the algebra of Formal Polynomials.
This is not matrix multiplication.