Category Theory: useful or not?
Monday, June 26th, 2006What is category theory good for, practically speaking? From what I understand of it, it allows you to make overarching statements about mathematical structures that are in a sense just semigroups: sets with associative binary relations. Probably there are some other technical requirements, but that’s the essence, right? So you can now treat Top, the category of topological spaces with homeomorphisms as the binary relation, as a category, and Grp, the category of groups with group morphism as the binary relation, as a category– look at them as different instantiations of the same type.
Why do you care? It seems like there’s a slight chance you could find some categorical theorem that could be translated into a nontrivial result in multiple categories, but I’ve never heard of it happening; I suspect there are two reasons for that: 1) recognizing a useful category theoretical result is probably hard, given the abstractness of the concepts involved, and 2) useful results seem (in my naivete, perhaps) to depend on the features that are abstracted away by category theory. Not that I’m saying such a useful result hasn’t been found, just I haven’t heard of it, which leads me to think if such results exist, they are rather technical and nonprofound.
Consider the first line from the introduction to Saunders Mac Lane’s ‘Categories for the Working Mathematician’:
Category theory starts from the observation that many properties of mathematical systems can be unified and simplified by a presentation with diagrams of arrows.
Is that supposed to motivate further study? … because I’m not feeling it.
. Then why is
positive definite when
? I think it is ‘because’
such that
. This came up in class just after we discussed the spectral mapping theorem, so I was attempting to use that to attack this, but it turns out (as Shikha pointed out) the easiest way is to just look at the trace of both sides. I still haven’t figured out a proof using spectrums, but Dr. Singh assures us the proof will be straightforward once we see a little more machinery.
at
, where
are normed linear spaces, is the unique linear transformation
satisfying
(the set of square matrices of order
) as a normed space and look at the squaring function
defined by
, then
and
?
and
, then
. Pretty neat!
be a square matrix of order
a polynomial, then show
, where
is the spectrum of
), the other is trickier.
).
such that
?
imply that
is independent of
for
? I don’t think so…
and
.
with the following properties:
(symmetry)
and
(positive definiteness)
(linearity)
(linearity).
is
; you can show that in the case
, this satisfies the relationship
where
denotes the usual length of a vector. Similarly, for any inner product, if we define the norm of a vector appropriately,
, then we have
, so the inner product supplies a concept of the angle between two vectors in an arbitrary vector space (you can take the angle to be arccos of that quotient).
, a real vector space, then by linearity, we have
and
with their representations as column vectors relative to
, and
. The fact that
is positive definite follows from property 2 of inner products. It is easy to see that a positive definite matrix
, then it is sufficient that
and
for
. Shihka had the idea of just modifying the arguments to the standard inner product by applying an invertible linear transformation to get a new inner product:
is positive definite (is this easier than the standard proof?), and gives a quick way to generate nontrivial inner products in any finite dimensional vector space.
be the amount of pie the older brother eats, and
the amount the younger brother eats, the hard part of this problem is seeing that the density
is not constant.