Exactness of differential forms
Remember a one-form
can be identified with a functional
on the set of piecewise differentiable curves
. It can also be identified with a vector field.
In special cases, a one-form can also represent the total differential of a function: if there is a function
such that
and
, then since the chain rule gives
, the one-form
is called the differential of the function
. A one-form
is called exact if there is some
such that
.
Note that if
, then
which shows the integral of an exact one-form is independent of the path taken– it depends only on the endpoints. In particular, the integral of
around any closed path is
. In physics, conservative forces (fields) are exact one-forms.
What if someone gives you a one-form
and asks you if it is exact? How could one determine an answer, or maybe even find a function with
as its differential?
First, if
, (assuming
is smooth), then
. The differential of a one-form is the two-form
. So, if
, then
. One-forms such that
are called closed.
By Stokes’ theorem,
if
is a simple region, where
. Consequently, for closed forms,
Applying Stoke’s theorem to the illustration below gives that
if
is a closed form, so closedness implies path independence.
Clearly from an earlier comment, the first prerequisite for being exact is closedness. In fact, you can show that in star-shaped domains, closedness implies exactness. Basically, you fix a value
at
, the center of the star, and define
for any point
in the domain, where
is a path from
to
. Taking derivatives shows any such
has
as a differential.
If
is exact on two domains
and
, and
is connected, then
is exact on
. The idea is that if
on
for
, then
on
, which is connected, so
on
. Let
, then the function
which takes the values of
on
and
on
satisfies
on
.
A powerful consequence of the fact that a closed one-form is exact in a star-shaped domain is that locally any closed one-form is exact. It then follows readily that a path integral of a closed one-form can be calculated in ‘exact patches’. More specifically, if
is a closed one-form on
and
is a smooth path in
, then there is a subdivision
and a collection of open subsets
of
such that
maps
into
, and the restriction of
to
is the differential of a function
. For any such choice of subdivision and open sets, if
,

The proof of this assertion is topological. First, for each point
in
, there is a neighborhood
in which the form is exact. The preimages of these neighborhoods under
forms an open cover of
, of which a finite subcover can be chosen.
An application of the Lebesgue number lemma tells us that there’s a fine enough refinement of this cover into sets
such that the image of each interval is contained in an
. Applying local exactness gives the result.
Possibly relevant posts:
- Cauchy’s theorem via Homotopy (8/8/2007)
- 1-forms and topology (7/27/2007)
- A cool proof of what exactly? (4/29/2005)
I really can’t say I approve of differential forms. The entire subject has so far seemed to me to me a layer of excessive formalism over fairly straightforward vector analysis. I also have objections on religious grounds to writing the likes of “pdx+qdy” and then integrating it.
Forms are too much like distributions for my taste, in that they must be integrated in order to be evaluated. A form cannot be said to have any value at a specific point. Compare and contrast to concepts like divergence, curl and the complex derivative, which all have a value at any point before any integrals are taken.
Add to this a swathe of books in which the authors really don’t know what they’re talking about, attested by their lack of geometry, automated symbol pushing, unmotivated definitions and total lack of any concrete examples. And this whole business with working in the counterintuitive dual space is often maddening. All in all, there’s not a lot that would convince me personally to move away from vector and tensor calculus. If this is the way to move into higher dimension, I don’t think I want to.
Word to the wise. Find out what the exterior product of two vectors _actually is_ before getting onto outer products of forms, that includes the exterior derivative. Hint: It’s geometric. Does your book use that torturous and convoluted definition of the wedge product, with the alternating permutation babble? That thing is an embarrassment to mathematics. It’s only a way to get the outer product, not what is actually _is_
Comment by ObsessiveMathsFreak — 7/31/2007 @ 6:56 am
Aren’t differential k-forms just antisymmetric (0,k) tensors? I have problems understanding the motivations for both tensors and differential forms, so it doesn’t matter much to me how you define either of them. However, I do find the simplified form of Stokes’ theorem to be a big upside to the formalism of differential forms, as opposed to regular vector calculus (it’s the only way I’ve found to remember Green’s theorem).
Exterior product == cross product in
? Not sure that it generalizes to anything particularly intuitive in higher dimensions except in the sense that you can use it to get a maximally independent set from (n-1) independent elements in 
Comment by Alex — 7/31/2007 @ 9:27 am